Ditto here.........not into intercourse, only BJ and JO!
Respect that
Genuine question tho,
does a marriage have to be consumated (ie Intercourse) for the legalitys of a marriage
i.e.
is it grounds for a divorce still
depending on which country / state of course
and / or is it simply a case of, as long as you have Fckd once, ( ie consumated the marriage) then you virtually dont have to Fck again, in the legal sense, for possible divorce matters etc
Anybody have a simple answer....or experienced....looooooooooong drawn out court procedures.