Jason, again, thank you. I am still at a loss here.
While I accept that USA chooses to break its treaties, and hasn't signed up for jurisdiction in the international court systems, I do not feel the analogies appropriately correlate. So, I'm trying to understand.
In theory, and I accept the theory, any country can violate the treaties it enters with the consequences being (a) the treaty provisions itself, (b) the ramifications that other countries will fail to meet their treaty obligations, and (c) the imposition of war against the sovereign country. Countries sign onto treaties, under whatever terms, but they don't surrender their sovereignty.
The USA exceptionalism doesn't exempt them from the consequences. The strength of the military and economy may dissuade (c). The lack of recognition of the international courts limits (a), somewhat.
Turning to your Scotland example, Scotland doesn't, in my opinion, have a realistic claim that they lack self-determination in their lives. Even with less representation (MPs), they are actively participating in their self-determination. Am I incorrect that the population of Catalonia is represented at least to the proportional population?
If they are, then what is the complaint about self-determination? They are actively engaged in the politics that determine their future. There is, of course, a segment of the population that disagrees with the policies and economic equations. So, except for the 'right to secede', what is the crux of the argument?
I hear, and read, a great deal of confirmation bias. People starting with the assumption that the region has the 'right to secede' and, therefore, the Spanish central government should grant equal status to the Catalonia regional government to "have a dialogue" about how Spain can appease the region. But, I start from the question, are they equals?
What of the analogy of the left hand dictating to the body what should be done. As I am coming to understand things, I think that even if some awesome deal were offered, how is that not blackmail? How does Catalonia have a reasoned position to make demands of all of Spain regarding how tax revenues are collected and spent?
There is no doubt in my mind that a political solution could have been found before all the posturing. There has to be something I'm missing.