Female advice needed

Bootyman

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I would advise you to have her take the day after pill just to be on the safe side. There isn't any reason to have to go through the stress and worry of "what if" if you don't have to.

This was one of the strongest reasons my GF decided to take the pill after all (a few hours ago)...

I would like to thank, once more, everyone who contributed to this thread... you've been a great support and help...:wink:
 

ManlyBanisters

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Bear in mind that although you can take the morning after pill up to 72 hours the nearer the time of the 'accident' it's taken the more effective it is.

I always thought that but I was once advised by a doctor (OB/Gyn) that that wasn't the case. 'Brand' should not make a difference - they are all essentially the same hormones in the same ratio. Curious.
 

snoozan

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Condoms are only 94% effective on the average, which means that out of every 100 times you have sex, there are six chances that she will get pregnant.

That's not exactly what the statistics mean, and that 94% doesn't take into account typical versus perfect use. What it means is that through typical use, over the period of a year, 10-18 out of 100 women will become pregnant while using only condoms for contraception. Typical use means the couple didn't use the condom every single time, they had breakage, didn't pull out directly after ejaculation, etc.

Perfect use of condoms puts their effectiveness at about 98%-- meaning that for every 100 women who use condoms every time they have sex using the directions on the box two of them will get pregnant.

Your interpretation of the statistics assumes one woman/couple when it's really a statistic based on a population. Your interpretation sounds a little more scary than it actually is.

But those statistics are usually for couples that say their primary form of birth control is condoms only. That doesn't mean they actually used a condom every time they had sex! People like to use that statistic to say condoms aren't effective, making it sound like they used a condom every time but still got pregnant.

Yes, that's accounted for when you see "typical use" statistics and "perfect use" statistics together.
 

SpoiledPrincess

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I always thought that but I was once advised by a doctor (OB/Gyn) that that wasn't the case. 'Brand' should not make a difference - they are all essentially the same hormones in the same ratio. Curious.[/quote

What I said was also the advice of a doctor, just goes to show they can't make their bloody minds up and you can't trust them :tongue: