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Saw an AP article about a new report on the Flint water crisis. The conclusion, after hearing from 100 Flint residents: no documented racism, no evidence of racism, no evidence that any civil rights laws were broken. THEREFORE, the RACISM that caused the water crisis was "systemic," because it didn't happen in wealthier white areas.
See, we can't prove the racism, so we'll just conclude that it exists in ways that can be neither proven nor disproven.
I also noted the linking of wealthier with white. This, itself, really is racist, because the natural inference is that poverty is a function of being black.
The huge question left by the article is: was it racism or classism that led to the water crisis? Or are they the same thing?
See, we can't prove the racism, so we'll just conclude that it exists in ways that can be neither proven nor disproven.
I also noted the linking of wealthier with white. This, itself, really is racist, because the natural inference is that poverty is a function of being black.
The huge question left by the article is: was it racism or classism that led to the water crisis? Or are they the same thing?