D_Relentless Original
Expert Member
I love you both!!! :grouphug:
actually, more like :3some:
LOL, i love you talkin' like this hehe.
sorry Op, back on track, my fault.
I love you both!!! :grouphug:
actually, more like :3some:
Actually, I think they changed their policy recently.
I would say masturbating to men/gay porn is a gay act. Masturbating with a guy is homoerotic if you are watching porn together, and is a gay act if you are just jacking off together, no porn.
Homosexuality is still considered a psych disorder by the AMA, well actually more the APA...![]()
Interesting, because the classification has not changed at this time. Like everything else in the red, white in blue... slow as molasses.
Wow. This is funny.
I guess the part that confuses me is...If you have someone masturbating to images of children- is that considered an act of pedophilia? If it is- why isn't masturbating to images of a man a gay/bisexual act. If someone can be labeled so simply by because they masturbate to images of children, why can't someone so easily be labeled for masturbating to images of men? Pieter says that this person has a disease and needs help- but in different cultures around the world, the age of consent varies from location to location. In times past, because life expectancy wasn't nearly as high, some girls were married at age 12...
So back to my original point- what's the difference?
My internet was being a bitch, so I apologize if this comes a little late to the argument.
To be quite honest I really don't find myself attracted to genders. I am attracted to (and fascinated by) personalities. Even in the materials I watch/read and my own fantasies, it is not the sexual act, per se, but the sexual personalities of the individuals involved that arouses me. Although many people claim to be attracted to a single gender, we can not rule out the possibility of exceptions. Heterosexual males may indulge in a few homosexual acts and still identify themselves as mostly heterosexual, and vice versa, simply because they were attracted to the individual, not the entirety of a sex. While it does happen, I consider it exceedingly rare for a person to be completely hetero- or homosexual, as in they haven't ever and will never be sexually attracted to the opposite gender.
Having gotten in my two cents on that issue, there is something I've come to notice about the argument for "jerking off with another guy is gay". In just about every post arguing that masturbation in the presence of another male is a homosexual occurrence, an assumption is made: The interest of the males involved is focused on one another. The problem with DrDante's pedophilia example is that the immediate expression of pedophilic interest, which leads many to assume that the two hypothetical males have homosexual interest in each other from the beginning. This is not an assumption that can be correctly made, as there is no way to confirm that without asking, and receiving the honest answer of, the two men involved in the act. Discoboy states "Waking in a room with other men is: a) erotic; and b) involving people of the same gender, which means it's c) homoerotic." Again, I disagree because it makes the assumption that the men involved are interested in the men masturbating in the immediate vicinity, rather than a type of porn they may be watching (if this is a straight act, there must be porn).
Being able to expose one's self in such a way is a symbol of very close friendship between people, regardless of gender, and is not necessarily homosexuality. However, even after typing out entire text walls of argument (my fingers are cramping), we still must asking ourselves: Does it really matter whether it's homosexual or not? Although I have been advocating the validity of this being a heterosexual act, I must ultimately align myself with those people here asking why the act MUST have a label. Why must any act have a label? Why must we ourselves have a label?
Pardon me, but what the hell are you talking about?
I thought I had made myself exceedingly clear. I apologize if I did not, as I can a bit of a rambler at times. To put it in a nutshell, we cannot say that two males masturbating together is a homosexual act without knowing whether the erotic interest is placed with the other males in the immediate vicinity or with some form of straight porn being watched/read/etc..
Gay men claim the opposite because, well, if you're getting off to a dude jerking off...
Wanking in a room with other men is: a) erotic; and b) involving people of the same gender, which means it's c) homoerotic.
What you describe is pansexuality, and is in itself, a sexual "orientation", if you will. Not everybody is like that.To be quite honest I really don't find myself attracted to genders. I am attracted to (and fascinated by) personalities.
If no sexual interest in the involved members, then why group up at all?Having gotten in my two cents on that issue, there is something I've come to notice about the argument for "jerking off with another guy is gay". In just about every post arguing that masturbation in the presence of another male is a homosexual occurrence, an assumption is made: The interest of the males involved is focused on one another.
Again, why wank off with other men if there's no sexual interest? It just doesn't make sense.The problem with DrDante's pedophilia example is that the immediate expression of pedophilic interest, which leads many to assume that the two hypothetical males have homosexual interest in each other from the beginning. This is not an assumption that can be correctly made, as there is no way to confirm that without asking, and receiving the honest answer of, the two men involved in the act.
How does porn make the act a straight act? If two men are wanking off together in a room, focusing exclusively on a porno, entirely ignoring each other, then they might as well be, for all intents and purposes, in separate rooms. If, however, having that male there wanking with them adds some "sexual flavour", then there is a sexual interest, no matter how minimal.Discoboy states "Waking in a room with other men is: a) erotic; and b) involving people of the same gender, which means it's c) homoerotic." Again, I disagree because it makes the assumption that the men involved are interested in the men masturbating in the immediate vicinity, rather than a type of porn they may be watching (if this is a straight act, there must be porn).
I think labels are important in our current existence because it helps us to knock down social stigma when it comes to homosexuality. Once people can accept the fact that the acts they perform aren't necessarily in tandem with the orientation they self-identify as, then we can live without labels. Until then, calling things out for what they are, ultimately, is what's gonna bring us to complete sexual freedom.Being able to expose one's self in such a way is a symbol of very close friendship between people, regardless of gender, and is not necessarily homosexuality. Does it really matter whether it's homosexual or not? Although I have been advocating the validity of this being a heterosexual act, I must ultimately align myself with those people here asking why the act MUST have a label. Why must any act have a label? Why must we ourselves have a label?