Issues with the LifeStyles study data

craig_uk

Experimental Member
Joined
Oct 18, 2006
Posts
201
Media
1
Likes
20
Points
238
Location
Reading (England)
Sexuality
69% Gay, 31% Straight
Gender
Male
knite crawlur is pretty close. I just finished my last statistics class (thank goodness). sample size of 300 is quite small to be generalizing for a whole population, but...you're math is wrong...1/300=0.003333...0.3333 would be 100/300

Where I come from 1 out of 100 (1/100) is 1%.

So how is 1 out of 300 equal to 0.00333... %? (surely that is 1 in 30,000).
 

Kayden96

Experimental Member
Joined
Jul 14, 2009
Posts
331
Media
0
Likes
12
Points
103
Location
St. Paul, MN
Sexuality
100% Straight, 0% Gay
Gender
Male
Where I come from 1 out of 100 (1/100) is 1%.

So how is 1 out of 300 equal to 0.00333... %? (surely that is 1 in 30,000).
I'm thinking he missed the % sign after .3333.

1/300 is .003333 as he said. He then goes, "... .333," where I think the % was omitted.
 

TheRob

Legendary Member
Joined
Aug 23, 2007
Posts
5,668
Media
19
Likes
1,897
Points
333
Gender
Male
Don't have an explanation but completely agree.
Many major studies are seriously flawed. Even when the flaws are highlighted, many people still quote findings as universal fact.

any time a number is listed in two seperate brackets...that skews results to me
look at the girth chart
5.5" is on two entries
 

bobg4400

Loved Member
Joined
Jun 11, 2011
Posts
2,718
Media
1
Likes
522
Points
258
Location
UK
Sexuality
99% Straight, 1% Gay
Gender
Male
any time a number is listed in two seperate brackets...that skews results to me
look at the girth chart
5.5" is on two entries

This makes the most sense since all the categegories overlap in both length and girth.
 

someperson

Legendary Member
Joined
Apr 26, 2011
Posts
4,091
Media
9
Likes
1,855
Points
198
Location
Los Angeles, California
Sexuality
90% Straight, 10% Gay
Gender
Male
The only possibility I thought of was that the charts were supposed to represent the normal distribution for the entire male population, calculated from the results of the study. But if that's the case, how could the "bell" shape become so distorted around the reported mean for the girth (4.972")? The 4.75" to 5.00" interval has the highest percentage, as you'd expect, but then the distribution dips VERY low for the two adjacent intervals before rising again for the 4.25" to 4.50" and 5.25" to 5.50" intervals. There's no way a normal distribution could take that form. The page I linked to elaborates on this point a little, also.
Girth is harder to come by.
This is why "large and extra large condoms" are for 5.25 & 5.5" girth
6" girth = huge
6.5" & above =gigantic.


this is what it should look like
 

Attachments

Last edited: