“The foreskin, usually within adolescence, could tend to shorten with penis development and consequently the glans may no longer remain altogether covered. Therefore, the fact that without surgery a part of men can have a penis similar in appearance to who is partially or completely circumcised, could suggest that perhaps the main function of the foreskin is to protect the glans especially when the "male" is still a newborn (and thus wears diapers) and until the end of infancy. In the adult instead, after the growth, this function would slightly lose importance (also compared to past years), almost as if it was no longer so completely essential”
What do you think about this "explanation" (that I found online) ? Is it correct or is it an absurdity ?
What do you think about this "explanation" (that I found online) ? Is it correct or is it an absurdity ?