# Misinterpreted "Average Size"

Discussion in 'The Healthy Penis' started by Imported, Feb 11, 2004.

1. ### Imported Gold Member

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yaddayadda: It is easy to be mistaken upon hearing of an average, that there are as many objects below, as above the average number. However, that is not the case.

For this topic, we will work with the average penis being 6". Thinking mathematically:

There are 3 men in a room, each with penises as follows: 4", 6", 8". The average in the room is 6".

Then...

There are 3 men in a room, each with penises as follows: 0", 6", 12". The average in the room is 6".

Finally...

There are 3 men in a room, each with penises as follows: 0", 6", 13". The average in the room is 6.3".

As you can see, there are more variances ABOVE the average size, than BELOW the average size (you cannot have a -1" penis...)

As witnessed from this "Support Group", there have been penises reported as big as 15" if not bigger. In order to keep the average at 6", there must be several smaller penises to counter-act the large penis.

There are 4 men in a room, each with penises as follows: 15", 3", 3", 3". The average in the room is 6".

Assuming that the MAX. penis size is 15", there is a ratio of 3:1 for smaller-than-average penises.
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So what does all this boring stuff mean? Well, simply, it can be assumed that the majority of men are NOT the average size (6")... the majority - infact - are below average.

Now, of course, studies on penis size always end up with varied results, and since we cannot possibly know the TRUE average, this is just an assumption...

SO... we "average men" have just become less common, and you horse-hung guys - albeit already a rarity - even more rare  ;D
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Lol, I was bored, and was well, thinking about penises ; what else? ;D

My explanation can go futher, into working out percentages... Typically, Asian men have smaller-than-average penises right? Well, Asia makes up like 3.5 billion of the world's population, if not more. So if 60% of men have a penis size of... lets say 4.5", what is the ASSUMED percentage of men with penies larger than 6"? 8"?

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2. ### jonb Gold Member

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Actually, with proportional averages, it's somewhat different. If I use 3, 6, and 12, the average is 6.

About race and penis size...Kinsey only came up with a difference of a few millimeters between races. The greater differences are typically in racist surveys intending to show black inferiority with half-baked eugenic theories about men with larger penises being more aggressive and less intelligent. One can easily bias it, after all: I'm reminded of the old studies of race and brain size. By focusing on Peruvians on one side and northern Europeans on the other, this one 19th-century physician proved that Indians had smaller brains.

Besides which, I could come up with different maps of different traits: Ethiopians typically have skinny noses (leptorrhinic) for exapmle.

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3. ### Imported Gold Member

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Ineligible: There are lots of different types of averages. The arithmetic mean isn't really the most suitable. Biological measurements are usually more evenly distributed as their logs, meaning that 2/3 average and 3/2 times average are about equally likely. That would suggest a geometric mean, jonb's proportional average (multiply the values together, then take the nth root, where n is the number of values).

However, the median is probably the easiest and most sensible average to use. That's the value that 50% of the population are less than, and 50% are greater than.

There is also the mode, which is the most common value, the top of the curve.

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4. ### Imported Gold Member

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ORCABOMBER: That even assumes that Penis size is normally distributed.

Then of course, the range and variance have to be taken into account.. ;D

BTW, I'm crap at maths, don't make me try to work it out!

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5. ### jonb Gold Member

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Ineligible's right: Medians and percentiles make more sense.

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6. ### Imported Gold Member

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mekkler: [quote author=jonb link=board=health;num=1076541149;start=0#4 date=02/12/04 at 13:46:41]Ineligible's right: Medians and percentiles make more sense.[/quote]

Also having a much larger data sample.

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7. ### Imported Gold Member

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yaddayadda: Ineligible - but if 50% is smaller, and 50% is greater, there is no room for people who ARE average

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8. ### Imported Gold Member

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Ineligible: The advantage of thinking in terms of infinitely accurate measurements.

In practice, you put all the measurements in order and take the middle one.

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9. ### Imported Gold Member

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that math is right but the most important thing your lacking is a usable sample size. i'm studying satistics so this sorta thing comes up a lot. but lets say that 1 in 1000 men has a 15 inch penis while everyone else has a average 6" penis. the math then looks like this.
(6 x 999) + 15 = 6009
6009/1000 = 6.009
the average is not effected by outliners to any major degree. just .009 in my example, but i'm not sure what the actual ratio for large men is to average sized men. i would imagine that it would be more than that and effect the average even less but i dont know.

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10. ### jonb Gold Member

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A better statistic would be the median or mode, in which case the extremes don't matter at all. The median and quartiles simply tell how you stack up against other men; the mode, which shouldn't be all that different from the median, tells what to most likely expect from other men.

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11. ### Imported Gold Member

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SRV524: I think Asia is only 2 billion......China is about 1.5, Japan is say.....400 million, etc. India alone has 1.3 billion, plus 1 billion for the western world, plus Europe, Africa, etc.....Asia only has about 2 billion, not 3.5 Still......good math, mr. math major.

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12. ### Imported Gold Member

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Ineligible: Er, Asia includes China and Japan and India, SRV, so those three nations alone would be 3.2 billion on your figures. And there are a quite number of other Asian nations, some with quite considerable populations.

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