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I have recently represented a client accused of rape. He claimed the girl concerned consented to sex and indeed chased him down!
The evidence from the medical exam is that she had a "superficial, 5mm. tear to the posterior fourchette of the vagina" 5mm is just under a quarter of an inch; I understand "posterior fourchette" to mean the point of the opening of the vagina, nearest the anus.
The doctor's evidence was that this was consistent with forcible penetration or consensual but "rough" sex.
The Defendant had given an account to the police of being very gentle throughout, so the medical evidence was against him.
He told me in conference that he has a very large penis: he claimed over 9 inches in length and used his wrist to demonstrate its approximate girth. He suggested this caused the tear. I didn't think it was quite ethical to ask him to whip it out in the cells and show me and it was a point I was uneasy about putting in evidence. The girl was 4'6" tall and very thin - 85 lbs. in weight. He described difficulty in getting into her: although she was very wet and he had fingered her to open her up, she was still very tight. He admitted she winced when he entered her but said she had otherwise enjoyed the sex (which both agreed lasted half an hour), held onto his buttocks and urged him to thrust deeper. He also says she knew what she was going to get because she had felt him up in a night club earlier that night, had commented on the size of his cock and said she wanted it.
The case is over now and he was found not guilty: there were other aspects of her evidence which were somewhat implausible. But the fact that she invented some details to beef up her story does not mean the central allegation was necessarily untrue.
I would welcome comments on these questions:
(1) IN your experience, can a tear like this happen simply because the man has a very large penis, and the woman is small -- even with gentle as opposed to rough sex?
(2) If a tear like that occurs, is it painful only at the point when the tear happens or does it make enjoying the sesx immediately aftet the tear occurs, impossible? That was the prosecution's contention: with a tear like that, she would have been in pain and couldn't possibly have enjoyed/wanted to be fucked.
Incidentally, HE was only 5' tall, and slightly built -- so I am sure it would have been quite a sight!
GENUINE information please - not fantasy!
The evidence from the medical exam is that she had a "superficial, 5mm. tear to the posterior fourchette of the vagina" 5mm is just under a quarter of an inch; I understand "posterior fourchette" to mean the point of the opening of the vagina, nearest the anus.
The doctor's evidence was that this was consistent with forcible penetration or consensual but "rough" sex.
The Defendant had given an account to the police of being very gentle throughout, so the medical evidence was against him.
He told me in conference that he has a very large penis: he claimed over 9 inches in length and used his wrist to demonstrate its approximate girth. He suggested this caused the tear. I didn't think it was quite ethical to ask him to whip it out in the cells and show me and it was a point I was uneasy about putting in evidence. The girl was 4'6" tall and very thin - 85 lbs. in weight. He described difficulty in getting into her: although she was very wet and he had fingered her to open her up, she was still very tight. He admitted she winced when he entered her but said she had otherwise enjoyed the sex (which both agreed lasted half an hour), held onto his buttocks and urged him to thrust deeper. He also says she knew what she was going to get because she had felt him up in a night club earlier that night, had commented on the size of his cock and said she wanted it.
The case is over now and he was found not guilty: there were other aspects of her evidence which were somewhat implausible. But the fact that she invented some details to beef up her story does not mean the central allegation was necessarily untrue.
I would welcome comments on these questions:
(1) IN your experience, can a tear like this happen simply because the man has a very large penis, and the woman is small -- even with gentle as opposed to rough sex?
(2) If a tear like that occurs, is it painful only at the point when the tear happens or does it make enjoying the sesx immediately aftet the tear occurs, impossible? That was the prosecution's contention: with a tear like that, she would have been in pain and couldn't possibly have enjoyed/wanted to be fucked.
Incidentally, HE was only 5' tall, and slightly built -- so I am sure it would have been quite a sight!
GENUINE information please - not fantasy!