D_Gunther Snotpole
Account Disabled
I do understand, although I also think in context from earlier paragraphs the meaning was pretty clear. But in the interest of clarity and amity I tried to revise my post but it has timed me out. Here is what I was trying to amend it to read:
I'm not saying that the abolition of the death penalty isn't a factor one way or another, but even allowing for those two exceptional events, how do you explain, in the absence of capital punishment - a decrease in reported homicides against an increase in population - i.e. a decreased homicide rate?
:biggrin1:
Well, it's not too important.
But your meaning wasn't clear because in the immediate preceding paragraph, you were talking about rates:
Raw numbers aside, let's look at rates. Thus I'd also ask, in view of your assertion that a lack of capital punishment is a major factor in such 'massive increases in murder rates' - why is the 2005/2006 rate of 1.38 just over 70% of the 2002/2003 rate of about 1.96, which was to be fair 'Shipmanised' to the tune of 173. Although his victims died over a period he alone accounted for over 15% of the total homicide count for that year. The 2005/2006 figure of 1.38 includes 52 from the 7/7 bombings (7%).
I'm not saying that the abolition of the death penalty isn't a factor one way or another, but even allowing for those two exceptional events, how do you explain, in the absence of capital punishment - a decreasing homicide incidence against an increasing population?
But anyway, I am going to shelve my anality for the day.
Amity above all, dong.
Cheers.