Do straight guys get bjs from other guys?

True, but if I fix a toilet and find that I have an affinity for toilet repair....then go one to fix more toilets.... I am now a plumber.

Sticking with that same analogy...what do you cal a plumber who happens to fix a flat tire...once? A mechanic? No...

Habitual behavior is what determines someone's sexual orientation.

So 2 men consistently engaging in sexual activity together, can still call themselves straight, in your world...?

So what does one call themselves when they engage in homosexual sex once, but later find out they don't like it?

Are they gay because they once put a dick in their mouth?
Are they bi because they once had a dick in their mouth, but put a their tongue in a vagina soon afterwards?
Or are they straight because they don't have a dick currently in their mouth.

That is like saying a smoker is only a smoker when he isn't lighting up.

There is the mental desire -- see chick, wanna bang, and there is the physical response to stimulation, not even knowing who is stimulating you.

Let us say there were a game show where men were to rate blowjobs, sucker unseen. The contestant was aroused by each sucker and nutted, say Idol style, one bj per day. At the end of the week, he rates the suckers, and picks one. After the reveal, it is revealed that one of the suckers was a man -- maybe the best, maybe not -- no matter. The contestant claimed to be 100% straight and expressed no desire for homosexual sex, yet the proof is in the jizz that he was aroused by a man (albeit unknowingly), and brought to climax. Does that make him gay? Does that make him bi? Can he still be considered straight?

In the end, there is what you pursue, and what you allow yourself to succumb to. There is also the involuntary human response to consider. Men in prison may have sex with each other because that is all they have, and they choose human contact over masturbation. That doesn't make them gay. Or does it?
 
The first time I had one I was a little weirded out, but he did such an amazing job and was really cool about it, now I don't care who gives me one anymore.
 
So what does one call themselves when they engage in homosexual sex once, but later find out they don't like it?

Are they gay because they once put a dick in their mouth?
Are they bi because they once had a dick in their mouth, but put a their tongue in a vagina soon afterwards?
Or are they straight because they don't have a dick currently in their mouth.

That is like saying a smoker is only a smoker when he isn't lighting up.

There is the mental desire -- see chick, wanna bang, and there is the physical response to stimulation, not even knowing who is stimulating you.



Let us say there were a game show where men were to rate blowjobs, sucker unseen. The contestant was aroused by each sucker and nutted, say Idol style, one bj per day. At the end of the week, he rates the suckers, and picks one. After the reveal, it is revealed that one of the suckers was a man -- maybe the best, maybe not -- no matter. The contestant claimed to be 100% straight and expressed no desire for homosexual sex, yet the proof is in the jizz that he was aroused by a man (albeit unknowingly), and brought to climax. Does that make him gay? Does that make him bi? Can he still be considered straight?

In the end, there is what you pursue, and what you allow yourself to succumb to. There is also the involuntary human response to consider. Men in prison may have sex with each other because that is all they have, and they choose human contact over masturbation. That doesn't make them gay. Or does it?

Kleepay said:

The first time I had one I was a little weirded out, but he did such an amazing job and was really cool about it, now I don't care who gives me one anymore.

here you are the answer, after you had once you will have others again and again
 
So what does one call themselves when they engage in homosexual sex once, but later find out they don't like it?

Are they gay because they once put a dick in their mouth?
Are they bi because they once had a dick in their mouth, but put a their tongue in a vagina soon afterwards?
Or are they straight because they don't have a dick currently in their mouth.

That is like saying a smoker is only a smoker when he isn't lighting up.

There is the mental desire -- see chick, wanna bang, and there is the physical response to stimulation, not even knowing who is stimulating you.

Let us say there were a game show where men were to rate blowjobs, sucker unseen. The contestant was aroused by each sucker and nutted, say Idol style, one bj per day. At the end of the week, he rates the suckers, and picks one. After the reveal, it is revealed that one of the suckers was a man -- maybe the best, maybe not -- no matter. The contestant claimed to be 100% straight and expressed no desire for homosexual sex, yet the proof is in the jizz that he was aroused by a man (albeit unknowingly), and brought to climax. Does that make him gay? Does that make him bi? Can he still be considered straight?

In the end, there is what you pursue, and what you allow yourself to succumb to. There is also the involuntary human response to consider. Men in prison may have sex with each other because that is all they have, and they choose human contact over masturbation. That doesn't make them gay. Or does it?

The reciever has no control over that situation so that hypothetical situation doesnt count because he never had a chance to chose what gender was servicing him so to me that is a silly statement smh why cant you guys see that once you commit a homosexual act as a so called straight man you no longer hold the title of straight? These hypotheticals you are throwing out are absolutely silly and annoying straight men only want women to suck and fuck end of story there is no inbetween

And there is nothing wrong with being gay or bi at all as you well know but stop trying to push that bullshit on guys that are truly straight the straight guys you are referring to are closet bi or gay men in denial and you know they arent straight so why entertain that shit? I know some of you like to think that you are so irresistable that even a straight guy would fuck or get sucked by you but you know they were already swinging that way in the first place that is why you persued it

And if you get him drunk and he lets you fuck or suck him or he fucks you that was his excuse to do so and both of you know it
 
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The act would correctly be labeled homosexual, but the people would not necessarily be. Is a lesbian who gets paid to sleep with a man a straight woman? No. She is a lesbian who engaged in a straight sex act. Sex acts can be easily labeled, based on what parts touched what parts. But people have more factors involved than just anatomy. Desire defines sexual self identity. Granted, most people engage in sex acts corresponding to their orientation, but not always. Just because you occasionally fix a toilet doesn't necessarily make you a plumber.

Well said, Mikey. You are continually the voice of reason. That being said; I can't believe I continue to read this thread. It's like reading the Star and the grocery check-out...
 
So what does one call themselves when they engage in homosexual sex once, but later find out they don't like it?

Are they gay because they once put a dick in their mouth?
Are they bi because they once had a dick in their mouth, but put a their tongue in a vagina soon afterwards?
Or are they straight because they don't have a dick currently in their mouth.

That is like saying a smoker is only a smoker when he isn't lighting up.

I love the way you all ignore context clues and certain words in posts that disagree with the ideology that "men fucking men isn't gay". Did you not read the part of my post that said it's HABITUAL BEHAVIOR that decides someone's sexual orientation...? So yes, a guy who tries something once but decided later its not for him, could proclaim himself straight and hear no protests from me. But a guy who is constantly engaging in homosexual activity (ie 2 men engaging in sexual acts together) is NOT straight.

Let us say there were a game show where men were to rate blowjobs, sucker unseen. The contestant was aroused by each sucker and nutted, say Idol style, one bj per day. At the end of the week, he rates the suckers, and picks one. After the reveal, it is revealed that one of the suckers was a man -- maybe the best, maybe not -- no matter. The contestant claimed to be 100% straight and expressed no desire for homosexual sex, yet the proof is in the jizz that he was aroused by a man (albeit unknowingly), and brought to climax. Does that make him gay? Does that make him bi? Can he still be considered straight?
Make this the 3rd time this SAME example has been posted. Why would a straight man take the chance of having his dick touched sexually by another man? Straight men, or whatever you want to call men who have NO sexual interest in other men, WOULDN'T put themselves in that sort of situation. I mean....why take that risk? Just go back a few pages and read my respnse to this same question being asked... cause I'm too lazy to retype it all.

But present me with the "chance" of being blown by Chalize Theron (I love her so much) ....but tell me there's a chance there MAY be a guy there instead....I'll pass on the whole gig. Why? Because the thought of there possibly being a man there would ruin the entire experience for me.


In the end, there is what you pursue, and what you allow yourself to succumb to. There is also the involuntary human response to consider. Men in prison may have sex with each other because that is all they have, and they choose human contact over masturbation. That doesn't make them gay. Or does it?

Please don't say involuntary...because involuntary sexual contact is pretty much rape. Someone already posted about body responses to unwanted stimulation. Sure, you can't always control your body....think of how many unwanted or embarassing boners you experienced early in life... Point is, if you volutarily put yourself in a position to perform sex acts with men....you VOLUTARILY did that....meaning you can't play dumb about it. You let yourself be serviced by a man....you willfully engaged in that homosexual activity, so NO I can't accept your proclamation of heterosexuality...based soley off the GIVEN (not interpreted, or personal) definition of the 2 terms.

Also...notice you said men in prison "CHOOSE" human contact over masturbation. Here' a hypothetical situation in the same vain as this prison shit...

Say a man and a woman are trapped in a cell together...and she wants nothing to do with him. If he forces himself on her because he "CHOOSES" human contact over masturbation....does he escape the title of rapist? Why not? He was desparate for realease and didn't want to masturbate....doesn't that grant him immunity to labels?
 
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I love the way you all ignore context clues and certain words in posts that disagree with the ideology that "men fucking men isn't gay". Did you not read the part of my post that said it's HABITUAL BEHAVIOR that decides someone's sexual orientation...? So yes, a guy who tries something once but decided later its not for him, could proclaim himself straight and hear no protests from me. But a guy who is constantly engaging in homosexual activity (ie 2 men engaging in sexual acts together) is NOT straight.


Make this the 3rd time this SAME example has been posted. Why would a straight man take the chance of having his dick touched sexually by another man? Straight men, or whatever you want to call men who have NO sexual interest in other men, WOULDN'T put themselves in that sort of situation. I mean....why take that risk? Just go back a few pages and read my respnse to this same question being asked... cause I'm too lazy to retype it all.

But present me with the "chance" of being blown by Chalize Theron (I love her so much) ....but tell me there's a chance there MAY be a guy there instead....I'll pass on the whole gig. Why? Because the thought of there possibly being a man there would ruin the entire experience for me.




Please don't say involuntary...because involuntary sexual contact is pretty much rape. Someone already posted about body responses to unwanted stimulation. Sure, you can't always control your body....think of how many unwanted or embarassing boners you experienced early in life... Point is, if you volutarily put yourself in a position to perform sex acts with men....you VOLUTARILY did that....meaning you can't play dumb about it. You let yourself be serviced by a man....you willfully engaged in that homosexual activity, so NO I can't accept your proclamation of heterosexuality...based soley off the GIVEN (not interpreted, or personal) definition of the 2 terms.

Also...notice you said men in prison "CHOOSE" human contact over masturbation. Here' a hypothetical situation in the same vain as this prison shit...

Say a man and a woman are trapped in a cell together...and she wants nothing to do with him. If he forces himself on her because he "CHOOSES" human contact over masturbation....does he escape the title of rapist? Why not? He was desparate for realease and didn't want to masturbate....doesn't that grant him immunity to labels?

This is the funny thing, the majority of the time, any form of sexual assault including rape isn't about sex rather power, so their excuse is null and void and truly ridiculous.
 
To answer the question, no. Heterosexual males don't engage in sexual activities with other males. Bisexual, pansexual, and homosexual males do engage in sexual activities with other males. Pretty simple...
 
Bam!! A nut is a nut plain amd simple!! Whts up with all the labels...true str8 dudes dont join groups tlkin about dicks!! And dont come at me with tht support group sh@t, no thread or forum I have read consist of any support but to help u get a nut or tlk about how big eachothers dick is!!

'if it pleases my penis is pleases me'
 
'if it pleases my penis is pleases me'

And it's your right to live by that motto. Like I said many posts ago... enevitably, without fail, someone starts defending their personal choices as if someone told them being gay is bad. No one is attacking anyone's lifestyle choice. What we're here debating is the irrational thought process that tells 2 men who engage in habitual sexual activity, they are still straight. As it's been stated a half dozen times by now; you ARE FREE to call yourself whatever you want....just don't expect the general public or society to adhere to your way of thinking.
 
I believe that? I am not a super adrenaline... Do anything crazy guy..but do like adventure.
All my life was straight till a few years ago and let a guy blow me...it was kind of the same feeling..out of the box, taboo, different....and like posted on here, it was just getting off.
 
The reciever has no control over that situation so that hypothetical situation doesnt count because he never had a chance to chose what gender was servicing him so to me that is a silly statement smh why cant you guys see that once you commit a homosexual act as a so called straight man you no longer hold the title of straight? These hypotheticals you are throwing out are absolutely silly and annoying straight men only want women to suck and fuck end of story there is no inbetween

My reason for making that statement was to state that the human body will respond to stimulation. A previous post in this thread read that a 100% straight man could not be aroused by a man (fellating him). My rebuttal was written to say that it is possible, that the human body will respond to stimulation, any stimulation, man on man included. It's not an issue of if one seeks it. It's an issue of will be human body react to it. If the receiver can be aroused and to ejaculation, and that giver is a male, then the male can technically be aroused by a homosexual act.

I agree it's silly. I actually am finding the heat being written in this thread quite amusing.


I love the way you all ignore context clues and certain words in posts that disagree with the ideology that "men fucking men isn't gay". Did you not read the part of my post that said it's HABITUAL BEHAVIOR that decides someone's sexual orientation...? So yes, a guy who tries something once but decided later its not for him, could proclaim himself straight and hear no protests from me. But a guy who is constantly engaging in homosexual activity (ie 2 men engaging in sexual acts together) is NOT straight.

No argument from me, and I think we can agree on how we define how someone should define their sexuality, should they choose to define it.

Why would a straight man take the chance of having his dick touched sexually by another man?
For the sake of science... to prove that a straight man cannot be stimulated by another man. As I wrote above, I believe that the male body will respond to oral stimulation regardless who is giving it, provided the giver is allowed to give it. I think the head downstairs will have more power than the one upstairs. In a court of law, if someone stated that they could not be stimulated by another man, let the results of the game show incident proved them wrong, they'd be perjuring themselves.

Straight men, or whatever you want to call men who have NO sexual interest in other men, WOULDN'T put themselves in that sort of situation. I mean....why take that risk? Just go back a few pages and read my response to this same question being asked... cause I'm too lazy to retype it all.
And that is a fair assumption, and one I agree most men who claim to be 100 percent straight would not take, unless they were told that all the givers were female. But that is not the point I was trying to make. I was attempting to show that the man who claims to be 100% straight can be aroused by another man under the correct circumstances. I think biology wins out. A man could be blowing you under the lobster bib, and a hot hetero porno could be playing in 3D in front of you. If you got off in this scenario, then a man got a man who claims to be 100 percent straight off.

But present me with the "chance" of being blown by Chalize Theron (I love her so much) ....but tell me there's a chance there MAY be a guy there instead....I'll pass on the whole gig. Why? Because the thought of there possibly being a man there would ruin the entire experience for me.
Fair enough. That is your choice.

I would probably ante up and go for it... Odds are I would never get another chance, so why not?


Please don't say involuntary...because involuntary sexual contact is pretty much rape. Someone already posted about body responses to unwanted stimulation.
What I meant by involuntary response was not response to rape, but the body's natural response to its environment, on the same level of shivering in the cold, and sweating in the heat.

Sure, you can't always control your body....think of how many unwanted or embarassing boners you experienced early in life... Point is, if you volutarily put yourself in a position to perform sex acts with men....you VOLUTARILY did that....meaning you can't play dumb about it.
I would say you put yourself in a position to engage in great sex with someone you want to (Chalize Theron) at the risk of having sex with someone you don't want to. That is a choice, and I wouldn't play dumb about it. It's like going all-in with A-10 on a 10-10-A-3-6 flop, and one other player at the table having bullets...

Also...notice you said men in prison "CHOOSE" human contact over masturbation. Here' a hypothetical situation in the same vain as this prison shit...

Say a man and a woman are trapped in a cell together...and she wants nothing to do with him. If he forces himself on her because he "CHOOSES" human contact over masturbation....does he escape the title of rapist? Why not? He was desparate for realease and didn't want to masturbate....doesn't that grant him immunity to labels?
No. He does not escape the title of rapist. I would consider any two inmates of any sex in a cell for a long period of time... They originally despise each other, but consensually engage in sex after a period of time simply because they desire contact of some kind. I wrote "men" as plural, in the same holding cell, and chose the word "CHOOSE" for a reason. They both chose to get each other off instead of getting themselves off because rubbing it out on their own got boring, and there were no women to be had. Are they gay while they are in prison, but straight when they get released and go back to pursuing women only?

The intent of my arguments was to show that it is biologically possible for a man to get a 100 percent straight man off, and yes, deception counts in order to rebut the statement that "straight men are not aroused by men." which I take to be false. Straight men are not attracted to other men, but can be physically aroused to ejaculation by other men. If someone says, "No." and I will say, "Prove it" and then have a man fellate you, and if you get hard, it's History of the World, Part 1.
 
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My reason for making that statement was to state that the human body will respond to stimulation. A previous post in this thread read that a 100% straight man could not be aroused by a man (fellating him). My rebuttal was written to say that it is possible, that the human body will respond to stimulation, any stimulation, man on man included. It's not an issue of if one seeks it. It's an issue of will be human body react to it. If the receiver can be aroused and to ejaculation, and that giver is a male, then the male can technically be aroused by a homosexual act.

I agree it's silly. I actually am finding the heat being written in this thread quite amusing.




No argument from me, and I think we can agree on how we define how someone should define their sexuality, should they choose to define it.

For the sake of science... to prove that a straight man cannot be stimulated by another man. As I wrote above, I believe that the male body will respond to oral stimulation regardless who is giving it, provided the giver is allowed to give it. I think the head downstairs will have more power than the one upstairs. In a court of law, if someone stated that they could not be stimulated by another man, let the results of the game show incident proved them wrong, they'd be perjuring themselves.

And that is a fair assumption, and one I agree most men who claim to be 100 percent straight would not take, unless they were told that all the givers were female. But that is not the point I was trying to make. I was attempting to show that the man who claims to be 100% straight can be aroused by another man under the correct circumstances. I think biology wins out. A man could be blowing you under the lobster bib, and a hot hetero porno could be playing in 3D in front of you. If you got off in this scenario, then a man got a man who claims to be 100 percent straight off.

Fair enough. That is your choice.

I would probably ante up and go for it... Odds are I would never get another chance, so why not?


What I meant by involuntary response was not response to rape, but the body's natural response to its environment, on the same level of shivering in the cold, and sweating in the heat.

I would say you put yourself in a position to engage in great sex with someone you want to (Chalize Theron) at the risk of having sex with someone you don't want to. That is a choice, and I wouldn't play dumb about it. It's like going all-in with A-10 on a 10-10-A-3-6 flop, and one other player at the table having bullets...

No. He does not escape the title of rapist. I would consider any two inmates of any sex in a cell for a long period of time... They originally despise each other, but consensually engage in sex after a period of time simply because they desire contact of some kind. I wrote "men" as plural, in the same holding cell, and chose the word "CHOOSE" for a reason. They both chose to get each other off instead of getting themselves off because rubbing it out on their own got boring, and there were no women to be had. Are they gay while they are in prison, but straight when they get released and go back to pursuing women only?

The intent of my arguments was to show that it is biologically possible for a man to get a 100 percent straight man off, and yes, deception counts in order to rebut the statement that "straight men are not aroused by men." which I take to be false. Straight men are not attracted to other men, but can be physically aroused to ejaculation by other men. If someone says, "No." and I will say, "Prove it" and then have a man fellate you, and if you get hard, it's History of the World, Part 1.

I get what your point was; but is a point that requires such RADICAL hypothetical situations worth making? At what point did sex become just about a physical feelings? When did we start negating our other 4 sense during sex "just to get off"? If that were the case we'd all just be walking around rubbing our genitals on whatever provided stimulation. Animals, telephone poles, trash cans, the carpet in our living rooms etc...

Yes, biologically, what you were saying is probably true, but it requires a level of willful ignorance that real 100% straight men WOULDN'T allow themselves to succumb to. THIS is where REAL straight men, and what most people here call "straight" men, differ.

We REQUIRE a level of physical attraction to the person attached to our dicks to be FULLY satisfied. We don't live by the credo "a hole is a hole". Because there are holes attached to a lot of things we don't want to stick our dicks in. There's a standard we adhere to. Not implied, or forced on us by society... it's a standard based on personal preference.
 
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